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Algebra Difficulty 6.5 National olympiad Prove it

22. (UKR) (a) Do there exist functions f:RRf: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} and g:RRg: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} such that f(g(x))=x2 and g(f(x))=x3 for all xR? f(g(x))=x^{2} \quad \text { and } \quad g(f(x))=x^{3} \quad \text { for all } x \in \mathbb{R} ? (b) Do there exist functions f:RRf: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} and g:RRg: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} such that f(g(x))=x2 and g(f(x))=x4 for all xR? f(g(x))=x^{2} \quad \text { and } \quad g(f(x))=x^{4} \quad \text { for all } x \in \mathbb{R} ?

Solution

22. (a) Suppose that ff and gg are such functions. From g(f(x))=x3g(f(x))=x^{3} we have f(x1)f(x2)f\left(x_{1}\right) \neq f\left(x_{2}\right) whenever x1x2x_{1} \neq x_{2}. In particular, f(1),f(0)f(-1), f(0), and f(1)f(1) are three distinct numbers. However, since f(x)2=f(g(f(x)))=f(x3)f(x)^{2}=f(g(f(x)))=f\left(x^{3}\right), each of the numbers f(1),f(0),f(1)f(-1), f(0), f(1) is equal to its square, and so must be either 0 or 1. This contradiction shows that no such f,gf, g exist. (b) The answer is yes. We begin with constructing functions F,G:(1,)(1,)F, G:(1, \infty) \rightarrow (1, \infty) with the property F(G(x))=x2F(G(x))=x^{2} and G(F(x))=x4G(F(x))=x^{4} for x>1x > 1. Define the functions φ,ψ\varphi, \psi by F(22t)=22φ(t)F\left(2^{2^{t}}\right)=2^{2^{\varphi(t)}} and G(22t)=22ψ(t)G\left(2^{2^{t}}\right)=2^{2^{\psi(t)}}. These functions determine FF and GG on the entire interval (1,)(1, \infty), and satisfy φ(ψ(t))=t+1\varphi(\psi(t))=t+1 and ψ(φ(t))=t+2\psi(\varphi(t))=t+2. It is easy to find examples of φ\varphi and ψ\psi: for example, φ(t)=12t+1,ψ(t)=2t\varphi(t)=\frac{1}{2} t+1, \psi(t)=2 t. Thus we also arrive at an example for F,GF, G:
F(x)=2212log2log2x+1=22log2x,G(x)=222log2log2x=2log22x F(x)=2^{2^{\frac{1}{2} \log _{2} \log _{2} x+1}}=2^{2 \sqrt{\log _{2} x}}, \quad G(x)=2^{2^{2 \log _{2} \log _{2} x}}=2^{\log _{2}^{2} x}
It remains only to extend these functions to the whole of R\mathbb{R}. This can be done as follows:
f~(x)={F(x) for x>11/F(1/x) for 0<x<1x for x{0,1} \widetilde{f}(x)= \begin{cases}F(x) & \text { for } x>1 \\ 1 / F(1 / x) & \text { for } 0 < x < 1 \\ x & \text { for } x \in \{0, 1\} \end{cases}
g~(x)={G(x) for x>11/G(1/x) for 0<x<1x for x{0,1} \widetilde{g}(x)= \begin{cases}G(x) & \text { for } x>1 \\ 1 / G(1 / x) & \text { for } 0 < x < 1 \\ x & \text { for } x \in \{0, 1\} \end{cases}
and then f(x)=f~(x),g(x)=g~(x)\quad f(x)=\widetilde{f}(|x|), \quad g(x)=\widetilde{g}(|x|) \quad for xRx \in \mathbb{R}. It is directly verified that these functions have the required property.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.