Number theoryDifficulty 6.6National olympiadProve it
Show that if (2+3)k=1+m+n3, for positive integers m,n,k with k odd, then m is a perfect square.
Solution
We have (2+3)4=97+563=14(7+43)−1=14(2+3)2−1. Hence (2+3)k+2=14(2+3)k−(2+3)k−2. Thus if (2+3)k=ak+bk3, then ak+2=14ak−ak−2.
Now suppose the sequence ck satisfies c1=1,c2=5,ck+1=4ck−ck−1. We claim that ck2−ck−1ck+1=6. Induction on k. We have c3=19, so c22−c1c3=25−19=6. Thus the result is true for k=2. Suppose it is true for k. Then ck+1=4ck−ck−1, so ck+12=4ckck+1−ck−1ck+1=4ckck+1−ck2+6=ck(4ck+1−ck)+6=ckck+2+6, so the result is true for k+1.
Now put dk=ck2+1. We show that dk+2=14dk+1−dk. Induction on k. We have d1=2,d2=26,d3=362=14d2−d1, so the result is true for k=1. Suppose it is true for k. We have ck+3−4ck+2+ck+1=0. Hence 12+2ck+3ck+1−8ck+2ck+1+2ck+12=12. Hence 2ck+22−8ck+2ck+1+2ck+12=12. Hence 16ck+22−8ck+2ck+1+ck+12+1=14ck+22+14−ck+12−1, or (4ck+2−ck+1)2+1=14(ck+22+1)−(ck+12+1), or ck+32+1=14(ck+22+1)−(ck+12+1), or dk+3=14dk+2−dk+1. So the result is true for all k.
But a1=2,a3=26 and a2k+3=14a2k+1−a2k−1, and d1=2,d2=26 and dk+1=14dk−dk−1. Hence a2k−1=dk=ck2+1.
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