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Algebra Difficulty 7.6 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it

Suppose that ff and gg are two functions defined on the set of positive integers and taking positive integer values. Suppose also that the equations f(g(n))=f(n)+1f(g(n))=f(n)+1 and g(f(n))=g(f(n))= g(n)+1g(n)+1 hold for all positive integers. Prove that f(n)=g(n)f(n)=g(n) for all positive integer nn. (Germany)

Solution

Throughout the solution, by N\mathbb{N} we denote the set of all positive integers. For any function h:NNh: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N} and for any positive integer kk, define hk(x)=h(h(hk(x)))h^{k}(x)=\underbrace{h(h(\ldots h}_{k}(x) \ldots)) (in particular, h0(x)=x)\left.h^{0}(x)=x\right). Observe that f(gk(x))=f(gk1(x))+1==f(x)+kf\left(g^{k}(x)\right)=f\left(g^{k-1}(x)\right)+1=\cdots=f(x)+k for any positive integer kk, and similarly g(fk(x))=g(x)+kg\left(f^{k}(x)\right)=g(x)+k. Now let aa and bb be the minimal values attained by ff and gg, respectively; say f(nf)=a,g(ng)=bf\left(n_{f}\right)=a, g\left(n_{g}\right)=b. Then we have f(gk(nf))=a+k,g(fk(ng))=b+kf\left(g^{k}\left(n_{f}\right)\right)=a+k, g\left(f^{k}\left(n_{g}\right)\right)=b+k, so the function ff attains all values from the set Nf={a,a+1,}N_{f}=\{a, a+1, \ldots\}, while gg attains all the values from the set Ng={b,b+1,}N_{g}=\{b, b+1, \ldots\}. Next, note that f(x)=f(y)f(x)=f(y) implies g(x)=g(f(x))1=g(f(y))1=g(y)g(x)=g(f(x))-1=g(f(y))-1=g(y); surely, the converse implication also holds. Now, we say that xx and yy are similar (and write xyx \sim y) if f(x)=f(y)f(x)=f(y) (equivalently, g(x)=g(y)g(x)=g(y)). For every xNx \in \mathbb{N}, we define [x]={yN:xy}[x]=\{y \in \mathbb{N}: x \sim y\}; surely, y1y2y_{1} \sim y_{2} for all y1,y2[x]y_{1}, y_{2} \in[x], so [x]=[y][x]=[y] whenever y[x]y \in[x]. Now we investigate the structure of the sets [x][x].

Claim 1. Suppose that f(x)f(y)f(x) \sim f(y); then xyx \sim y, that is, f(x)=f(y)f(x)=f(y). Consequently, each class [x][x] contains at most one element from NfN_{f}, as well as at most one element from NgN_{g}. Proof. If f(x)f(y)f(x) \sim f(y), then we have g(x)=g(f(x))1=g(f(y))1=g(y)g(x)=g(f(x))-1=g(f(y))-1=g(y), so xyx \sim y. The second statement follows now from the sets of values of ff and gg.

Next, we clarify which classes do not contain large elements.

Claim 2. For any xNx \in \mathbb{N}, we have [x]{1,2,,b1}[x] \subseteq\{1,2, \ldots, b-1\} if and only if f(x)=af(x)=a. Analogously, [x]{1,2,,a1}[x] \subseteq\{1,2, \ldots, a-1\} if and only if g(x)=bg(x)=b. Proof. We will prove that [x]{1,2,,b1}f(x)>a[x] \nsubseteq\{1,2, \ldots, b-1\} \Longleftrightarrow f(x)>a; the proof of the second statement is similar. Note that f(x)>af(x)>a implies that there exists some yy satisfying f(y)=f(x)1f(y)=f(x)-1, so f(g(y))=f(y)+1=f(x)f(g(y))=f(y)+1=f(x), and hence xg(y)bx \sim g(y) \geq b. Conversely, if bcxb \leq c \sim x then c=g(y)c=g(y) for some yNy \in \mathbb{N}, which in turn follows f(x)=f(g(y))=f(y)+1a+1f(x)=f(g(y))=f(y)+1 \geq a+1, and hence f(x)>af(x)>a.

Claim 2 implies that there exists exactly one class contained in {1,,a1}\{1, \ldots, a-1\} (that is, the class [ng]\left[n_{g}\right]), as well as exactly one class contained in {1,,b1}\{1, \ldots, b-1\} (the class [nf]\left[n_{f}\right]). Assume for a moment that aba \leq b; then [ng]\left[n_{g}\right] is contained in {1,,b1}\{1, \ldots, b-1\} as well, hence it coincides with [ng]\left[n_{g}\right]. So, we get that
f(x)=ag(x)=bxnfng. f(x)=a \Longleftrightarrow g(x)=b \Longleftrightarrow x \sim n_{f} \sim n_{g} .

Claim 3. a=ba=b. Proof. By Claim 2, we have [a][nf][a] \neq\left[n_{f}\right], so [a][a] should contain some element aba^{\prime} \geq b by Claim 2 again. If aaa \neq a^{\prime}, then [a][a] contains two elements a\geq a which is impossible by Claim 1. Therefore, a=aba=a^{\prime} \geq b. Similarly, bab \geq a.

Now we are ready to prove the problem statement. First, we establish the following

Claim 4. For every integer d0,fd+1(nf)=gd+1(nf)=a+dd \geq 0, f^{d+1}\left(n_{f}\right)=g^{d+1}\left(n_{f}\right)=a+d. Proof. Induction on dd. For d=0d=0, the statement follows from (1) and Claim 3. Next, for d>1d>1 from the induction hypothesis we have fd+1(nf)=f(fd(nf))=f(gd(nf))=f(nf)+d=a+df^{d+1}\left(n_{f}\right)=f\left(f^{d}\left(n_{f}\right)\right)=f\left(g^{d}\left(n_{f}\right)\right)=f\left(n_{f}\right)+d=a+d. The equality gd+1(nf)=a+dg^{d+1}\left(n_{f}\right)=a+d is analogous.

Finally, for each xNx \in \mathbb{N}, we have f(x)=a+df(x)=a+d for some d0d \geq 0, so f(x)=f(gd(nf))f(x)=f\left(g^{d}\left(n_{f}\right)\right) and hence xgd(nf)x \sim g^{d}\left(n_{f}\right). It follows that g(x)=g(gd(nf))=gd+1(nf)=a+d=f(x)g(x)=g\left(g^{d}\left(n_{f}\right)\right)=g^{d+1}\left(n_{f}\right)=a+d=f(x) by Claim 4.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.