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Number theory Difficulty 5.7 AIME, harder Prove it

Lemma 12 If pp is a prime, then pap \nmid a implies (p,a)=1(p, a)=1, and when (p,a)=1(p, a)=1 it implies pap \nmid a.

Solution

Since pp is a prime number, pp has only two positive divisors, which are 1 and pp. If pap \nmid a, then only (p,a)=1(p, a)=1. Conversely, if (p,a)=1(p, a)=1, then pp is not a common divisor of pp and aa, so pap \nmid a.

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Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic and difficulty added by this site.