AlgebraDifficulty 6.9Prove itGARA NAZIONALE di MATEMATICA · Italy
Let a1,a2,a3,a4 be four distinct integers and let P(x) be a polynomial with integer coefficients such that P(a1)=P(a2)=P(a3)=P(a4)=1.
a. Prove that there does not exist any integer n such that P(n)=12.
b. Do there exist a polynomial P(x) satisfying condition (∗) and an integer n such that P(n)=1998?
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.
Let us consider the polynomial Q(x)=P(x)−1. Condition (∗) ensures that Q(a1)=Q(a2)=Q(a3)=Q(a4)=0 and, by the Factor Theorem, Q(x) is divisible by each of the factors (x−ai) (1≤i≤4). Since the ai are distinct, Q(x) is divisible by their product, that is Q(x)=(x−a1)(x−a2)(x−a3)(x−a4)R(x) for some polynomial R(x) with integer coefficients. If, by contradiction, we had P(n)=12, we would have Q(n)=11, that is 11=(n−a1)(n−a2)(n−a3)(n−a4)R(n) and therefore 11, which is a prime number, could be written as a product of at least 4 distinct integers. But this is impossible, because the only integers that are divisors of 11 are ±1,±11, and of these at most three can be inserted in a product whose result is 11 (+11 and −11 cannot be inserted at the same time).
The same reasoning also shows that there do not exist a polynomial P(x) satisfying condition (∗) and an integer n such that P(n)=1998, because one checks that 1997=1998−1 is a prime number.
Source: MathNet,
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