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Problem 2561

IMO P2/P5; hard shortlist
Number theory Difficulty 9.2 Prove it China Team Selection Test for IMO · China · 2022

Given a positive integer nn, let DD be the set of positive divisors of nn, and let f:D→Zf: D \to \mathbb{Z} be a function. Prove that the following are equivalent:
(A) for any positive divisor mm of nn,
n∣∑d∣mf(d)(n/dm/d); n \mid \sum_{d|m} f(d) \binom{n/d}{m/d};
(B) for any positive divisor kk of nn,
k∣∑d∣kf(d). k \mid \sum_{d|k} f(d).

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

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Official solution

Proof: For map f:D→Zf: D \to \mathbb{Z}, we define a map g:D→Zg: D \to \mathbb{Z} to be
g(k)=∑d∣kf(d),∀k∈D. g(k) = \sum_{d|k} f(d), \quad \forall k \in D.
By Möbius transform, the map ff is uniquely determined by gg:
f(k)=∑d∣kμ(kd)g(d),∀k∈D, f(k) = \sum_{d|k} \mu\left(\frac{k}{d}\right) g(d), \quad \forall k \in D,
Therefore we have
∑d∣mf(d)(n/dm/d)=∑d∣m∑x∣dμ(dx)g(x)(n/dm/d)=∑x∣mg(x)(∑x∣d,d∣mμ(dx)(n/dm/d))=∑x∣mg(x)(∑s∣mxμ(s)(n/(xs)m/(xs))). \begin{align} \sum_{d|m} f(d) \binom{n/d}{m/d} &= \sum_{d|m} \sum_{x|d} \mu\left(\frac{d}{x}\right) g(x) \binom{n/d}{m/d} \nonumber \\ &= \sum_{x|m} g(x) \left( \sum_{x|d, d|m} \mu\left(\frac{d}{x}\right) \binom{n/d}{m/d} \right) \tag{1} \\ &= \sum_{x|m} g(x) \left( \sum_{s|\frac{m}{x}} \mu(s) \binom{n/(xs)}{m/(xs)} \right). \nonumber \end{align}
We need the following Lemma: If b∣ab|a, then
∑k∣bμ(k)(a/kb/k)≡0(moda). \sum_{k|b} \mu(k) \binom{a/k}{b/k} \equiv 0 \pmod{a}.
Assuming this lemma temporarily, we prove that (A) and (B) are equivalent. (The proof of the lemma will be given later.)
“(B) ⇒ (A)” Suppose that for every x∈Dx \in D we have x∣g(x)x \mid g(x). The lemma implies that
nx∣∑s∣mxμ(s)(m/(xs)n/(xs)), \frac{n}{x} \mid \sum_{s|\frac{m}{x}} \mu(s) \binom{m/(xs)}{n/(xs)},

"(A) ⇒ (B)" Suppose that (A) holds. We use induction to prove that for k∈Dk \in D, we always have k∣g(k)k|g(k). Suppose that we have already proved k∣g(k)k|g(k) for k<mk < m and k∈Dk \in D. Consider case of k=mk = m. By Lemma and the inductive hypothesis, we have
0≡∑d∣mf(d)(n/dm/d)≡∑x∣mg(x)(∑s∣mxμ(s)(n/(xs)m/(xs)))≡g(m)⋅nm+∑x∣m,x<mg(x)(∑s∣mxμ(s)(n/(xs)m/(xs)))≡g(m)⋅nm(mod n), \begin{aligned} 0 &\equiv \sum_{d|m} f(d) \binom{n/d}{m/d} \equiv \sum_{x|m} g(x) \left( \sum_{s|\frac{m}{x}} \mu(s) \binom{n/(xs)}{m/(xs)} \right) \\ &\equiv g(m) \cdot \frac{n}{m} + \sum_{x|m, x<m} g(x) \left( \sum_{s|\frac{m}{x}} \mu(s) \binom{n/(xs)}{m/(xs)} \right) \\ &\equiv g(m) \cdot \frac{n}{m} \quad (\text{mod } n), \end{aligned}
From this we get m∣g(m)m|g(m), completing the induction.

It remains to prove the lemma. Note that
∑k∣bμ(k)(a/kb/k)=ab∑k∣bμ(k)(ak−1bk−1), \sum_{k|b} \mu(k) \binom{a/k}{b/k} = \frac{a}{b} \sum_{k|b} \mu(k) \binom{\frac{a}{k}-1}{\frac{b}{k}-1},
Let b=∏i=1tpiβib = \prod_{i=1}^t p_i^{\beta_i} be the prime factorization. Then we only need to prove
∑k∣bμ(k)Cbk−1bk−1≡0(modpiβi). \sum_{k|b} \mu(k) C_{\frac{b}{k}-1}^{\frac{b}{k}-1} \equiv 0 \pmod{p_i^{\beta_i}}.
for every 1≤i≤t1 \le i \le t. For this, we may assume that i=1i = 1. Denote p1β1=pβp_1^{\beta_1} = p^{\beta}. Note that
∑k∣bμ(k)(ak−1bk−1)=∑I⊂{1,…,t}(−1)∣I∣(∏i∈Iapi∏i∈Ibpi−1)=∑J⊂{2,…,t}(−1)∣J∣((∏j∈Japj∏j∈Jbpj−1)−(∏j∈Japj∏j∈Jbpj−1)) \begin{aligned} & \sum_{k|b} \mu(k) \binom{\frac{a}{k}-1}{\frac{b}{k}-1} \\ &= \sum_{I \subset \{1, \dots, t\}} (-1)^{|I|} \left( \frac{\prod_{i \in I} \frac{a}{p_i}}{\prod_{i \in I} \frac{b}{p_i}} - 1 \right) \\ &= \sum_{J \subset \{2, \dots, t\}} (-1)^{|J|} \left( \left( \frac{\prod_{j \in J} \frac{a}{p_j}}{\prod_{j \in J} \frac{b}{p_j}} - 1 \right) - \left( \frac{\prod_{j \in J} \frac{a}{p_j}}{\prod_{j \in J} \frac{b}{p_j}} - 1 \right) \right) \end{aligned}
Then it suffices to show: if u,vu, v are multiples of pβp^{\beta}, then
(u−1v−1)−(up−1vp−1)≡0(modpβ).(2) \binom{u-1}{v-1} - \binom{\frac{u}{p}-1}{\frac{v}{p}-1} \equiv 0 \pmod{p^{\beta}}. \qquad (2)
Put w=u−vw = u - v. Then
(u−1v−1)=∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r+w)⋅∏1≤y≤vp−1(yp+w)∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)⋅∏1≤y≤vp−1(yp)=∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r+w)∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)⋅(up−1vp−1). \begin{aligned} \binom{u-1}{v-1} &= \frac{\prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r+w) \cdot \prod_{1 \le y \le \frac{v}{p}-1} (yp+w)}{\prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r) \cdot \prod_{1 \le y \le \frac{v}{p}-1} (yp)} \\ &= \frac{\prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r+w)}{\prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r)} \cdot \binom{\frac{u}{p}-1}{\frac{v}{p}-1}. \end{aligned}

Since ww is divisible by pβp^\beta, we get
(u−1v−1)∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)=(up−1vp−1)∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r+w)=(up−1vp−1)∏0≤x≤vp−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)(modpβ), \begin{aligned} & \left( \begin{matrix} u-1 \\ v-1 \end{matrix} \right) \prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r) \\ & = \left( \begin{matrix} \frac{u}{p}-1 \\ \frac{v}{p}-1 \end{matrix} \right) \prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r+w) \\ & = \left( \begin{matrix} \frac{u}{p}-1 \\ \frac{v}{p}-1 \end{matrix} \right) \prod_{0 \le x \le \frac{v}{p}-1, 1 \le r \le p-1} (xp+r) \pmod{p^\beta}, \end{aligned}
So (2) holds, and we complete the proof of the lemma.
Another proof of the lemma: We will use the following fact. Let XX be a finite set, and let h:X→Xh: X \to X be a map such that h(a)=IdXh^{(a)} = \text{Id}_X. Under the action of hh, XX is divided into some orbits. Each orbit looks like {x,h(x),h(2)(x),…,h(l)(x)=x}\{x, h(x), h^{(2)}(x), \dots, h^{(l)}(x) = x\}, where ll is the smallest positive integer such that h(l)(x)=xh^{(l)}(x) = x; we call ll the length of the orbit. Since h(a)=IdXh^{(a)} = \text{Id}_X, the length ll of every orbit is a divisor of aa. For every divisor ll of nn, let N(l)N(l) be the number of orbits with length ll. For every positive integer k∣ak|a, let
m(k)=#{x∈X:h(k)(x)=x}, m(k) = \#\{x \in X : h^{(k)}(x) = x\},
then m(k)=∑l∣kN(l)lm(k) = \sum_{l|k} N(l)l. Therefore we get
∑k∣aμ(k)m(ak)=∑k∣a∑l∣akμ(k)N(l)l=∑l∣aN(l)l∑k∣alμ(k)=N(a)a. \begin{aligned} \sum_{k|a} \mu(k) m\left(\frac{a}{k}\right) &= \sum_{k|a} \sum_{l|\frac{a}{k}} \mu(k) N(l) l \\ &= \sum_{l|a} N(l) l \sum_{k|\frac{a}{l}} \mu(k) \\ &= N(a) a. \end{aligned}
In particular, we have
∑k∣aμ(k)m(ak)≡0(moda).(3) \sum_{k|a} \mu(k) m\left(\frac{a}{k}\right) \equiv 0 \pmod{a}. \qquad (3)
We apply this to the following model. Let XX be the set of all subsets of Z/a\mathbb{Z}/a of bb elements. Define h:X→Xh: X \to X to be
h({y1,…,yb})={y1+1,…,yb+1},∀{y1,…,yb}∈X. h(\{y_1, \dots, y_b\}) = \{y_1 + 1, \dots, y_b + 1\}, \quad \forall \{y_1, \dots, y_b\} \in X.
In this model, for every divisor kk of aa, we have
m(k)=(kb/(a/k)). m(k) = \binom{k}{b/(a/k)}.
Then (3) implies that
∑k∣aμ(k)(a/kb/k)≡0(moda). \sum_{k|a} \mu(k) \binom{a/k}{b/k} \equiv 0 \pmod{a}.

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