Number theoryDifficulty 9.2Prove it2022 China Team Selection Test for IMO · China · 2022
Given a positive integer n, let D be the set of positive divisors of n, and let f:D→Z be a function. Prove that the following are equivalent: (A) for any positive divisor m of n, n∣d∣m∑f(d)(m/dn/d); (B) for any positive divisor k of n, k∣d∣k∑f(d).
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Official solution
Proof: For map f:D→Z, we define a map g:D→Z to be g(k)=d∣k∑f(d),∀k∈D. By Möbius transform, the map f is uniquely determined by g: f(k)=d∣k∑μ(dk)g(d),∀k∈D, Therefore we have d∣m∑f(d)(m/dn/d)=d∣m∑x∣d∑μ(xd)g(x)(m/dn/d)=x∣m∑g(x)x∣d,d∣m∑μ(xd)(m/dn/d)=x∣m∑g(x)s∣xm∑μ(s)(m/(xs)n/(xs)).(1) We need the following *Lemma*: If b∣a, then k∣b∑μ(k)(b/ka/k)≡0(moda). Assuming this lemma temporarily, we prove that (A) and (B) are equivalent. (The proof of the lemma will be given later.) “(B) ⇒ (A)” Suppose that for every x∈D we have x∣g(x). The lemma implies that xn∣s∣xm∑μ(s)(n/(xs)m/(xs)),
"(A) ⇒ (B)" Suppose that (A) holds. We use induction to prove that for k∈D, we always have k∣g(k). Suppose that we have already proved k∣g(k) for k<m and k∈D. Consider case of k=m. By Lemma and the inductive hypothesis, we have 0≡d∣m∑f(d)(m/dn/d)≡x∣m∑g(x)s∣xm∑μ(s)(m/(xs)n/(xs))≡g(m)⋅mn+x∣m,x<m∑g(x)s∣xm∑μ(s)(m/(xs)n/(xs))≡g(m)⋅mn(mod n), From this we get m∣g(m), completing the induction.
It remains to prove the lemma. Note that k∣b∑μ(k)(b/ka/k)=bak∣b∑μ(k)(kb−1ka−1), Let b=∏i=1tpiβi be the prime factorization. Then we only need to prove k∣b∑μ(k)Ckb−1kb−1≡0(modpiβi). for every 1≤i≤t. For this, we may assume that i=1. Denote p1β1=pβ. Note that k∣b∑μ(k)(kb−1ka−1)=I⊂{1,…,t}∑(−1)∣I∣(∏i∈Ipib∏i∈Ipia−1)=J⊂{2,…,t}∑(−1)∣J∣((∏j∈Jpjb∏j∈Jpja−1)−(∏j∈Jpjb∏j∈Jpja−1)) Then it suffices to show: if u,v are multiples of pβ, then (v−1u−1)−(pv−1pu−1)≡0(modpβ).(2) Put w=u−v. Then (v−1u−1)=∏0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)⋅∏1≤y≤pv−1(yp)∏0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r+w)⋅∏1≤y≤pv−1(yp+w)=∏0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r)∏0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1(xp+r+w)⋅(pv−1pu−1).
Since w is divisible by pβ, we get (u−1v−1)0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1∏(xp+r)=(pu−1pv−1)0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1∏(xp+r+w)=(pu−1pv−1)0≤x≤pv−1,1≤r≤p−1∏(xp+r)(modpβ), So (2) holds, and we complete the proof of the lemma. *Another proof of the lemma:* We will use the following fact. Let X be a finite set, and let h:X→X be a map such that h(a)=IdX. Under the action of h, X is divided into some orbits. Each orbit looks like {x,h(x),h(2)(x),…,h(l)(x)=x}, where l is the smallest positive integer such that h(l)(x)=x; we call l the length of the orbit. Since h(a)=IdX, the length l of every orbit is a divisor of a. For every divisor l of n, let N(l) be the number of orbits with length l. For every positive integer k∣a, let m(k)=#{x∈X:h(k)(x)=x}, then m(k)=∑l∣kN(l)l. Therefore we get k∣a∑μ(k)m(ka)=k∣a∑l∣ka∑μ(k)N(l)l=l∣a∑N(l)lk∣la∑μ(k)=N(a)a. In particular, we have k∣a∑μ(k)m(ka)≡0(moda).(3) We apply this to the following model. Let X be the set of all subsets of Z/a of b elements. Define h:X→X to be h({y1,…,yb})={y1+1,…,yb+1},∀{y1,…,yb}∈X. In this model, for every divisor k of a, we have m(k)=(b/(a/k)k). Then (3) implies that k∣a∑μ(k)(b/ka/k)≡0(moda).
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