Six stacks S1,…,S6 of coins are standing in a row. In the beginning every stack contains a single coin. There are two types of allowed moves:
Move 1: If stack Sk with 1≤k≤5 contains at least one coin, you may remove one coin from Sk and add two coins to Sk+1.
Move 2: If stack Sk with 1≤k≤4 contains at least one coin, then you may remove one coin from Sk and exchange stacks Sk+1 and Sk+2.
Decide whether it is possible to achieve by a sequence of such moves that the first five stacks are empty, whereas the sixth stack S6 contains exactly 201020102010 coins.
This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, read the official solution, then mark
yourself honestly — the ladder only means something if the record is true.
Official solution
Denote by (a1,a2,…,an)→(a1′,a2′,…,an′) the following: if some consecutive stacks contain a1,…,an coins, then it is possible to perform several allowed moves such that the stacks contain a1′,…,an′ coins respectively, whereas the contents of the other stacks remain unchanged.
Let A=20102010 or A=201020102010, respectively. Our goal is to show that (1,1,1,1,1,1)→(0,0,0,0,0,A) First we prove two auxiliary observations.
Lemma 1. (a,0,0)→(0,2a,0) for every a≥1.
Proof. We prove by induction that (a,0,0)→(a−k,2k,0) for every 1≤k≤a. For k=1, apply Move 1 to the first stack: (a,0,0)→(a−1,2,0)=(a−1,21,0) Now assume that k<a and the statement holds for some k<a. Starting from (a−k,2k,0), apply Move 1 to the middle stack 2k times, until it becomes empty. Then apply Move 2 to the first stack: (a−k,2k,0)→(a−k,2k−1,2)→⋯→(a−k,0,2k+1)→(a−k−1,2k+1,0) Hence, (a,0,0)→(a−k,2k,0)→(a−k−1,2k+1,0)
Lemma 2. For every positive integer n, let Pn=n22.2 (e.g. P3=222=16 ). Then (a,0,0,0)→(0,Pa,0,0) for every a≥1.
Proof. Similarly to Lemma 1, we prove that (a,0,0,0)→(a−k,Pk,0,0) for every 1≤k≤a. For k=1, apply Move 1 to the first stack: (a,0,0,0)→(a−1,2,0,0)=(a−1,P1,0,0) Now assume that the lemma holds for some k<a. Starting from ( a−k,Pk,0,0 ), apply Lemma 1, then apply Move 1 to the first stack: (a−k,Pk,0,0)→(a−k,0,2Pk,0)=(a−k,0,Pk+1,0)→(a−k−1,Pk+1,0,0) Therefore, (a,0,0,0)→(a−k,Pk,0,0)→(a−k−1,Pk+1,0,0)
Now we prove the statement of the problem.
First apply Move 1 to stack 5, then apply Move 2 to stacks S4,S3,S2 and S1 in this order. Then apply Lemma 2 twice: (1,1,1,1,1,1)→(1,1,1,1,0,3)→(1,1,1,0,3,0)→(1,1,0,3,0,0)→(1,0,3,0,0,0)→→(0,3,0,0,0,0)→(0,0,P3,0,0,0)=(0,0,16,0,0,0)→(0,0,0,P16,0,0) We already have more than A coins in stack S4, since A≤201020102010<(211)20102010=211⋅20102010<220102011<2(211)2011=2211⋅2011<22215<P16. To decrease the number of coins in stack S4, apply Move 2 to this stack repeatedly until its size decreases to A/4. (In every step, we remove a coin from S4 and exchange the empty stacks S5 and S6.) (0,0,0,P16,0,0)→(0,0,0,P16−1,0,0)→(0,0,0,P16−2,0,0)→→⋯→(0,0,0,A/4,0,0) Finally, apply Move 1 repeatedly to empty stacks S4 and S5 : (0,0,0,A/4,0,0)→⋯→(0,0,0,0,A/2,0)→⋯→(0,0,0,0,0,A)
Source: MathNet,
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