To prove that
a1!!a2!!⋯an!!(a1+a2+⋯+an)!!
is an integer, we will use properties of factorials and Legendre's formula for the valuation of factorials at a prime.
1. Definition and Setup:
- Define n!!=(n!)!.
- We need to show that the given fraction is an integer.
2. Prime Factorization Insight:
- Consider a prime p. We will use Legendre's formula to count the power of p in the factorials involved.
- Legendre's formula states that for any integer m,
vp(m!)=i=1∑∞⌊pim⌋
where vp(m!) denotes the exponent of the prime p in the prime factorization of m!.
3. Applying Legendre's Formula:
- For the numerator (a1+a2+⋯+an)!!, we have:
vp((a1+a2+⋯+an)!!)=vp(((a1+a2+⋯+an)!)!)
Using Legendre's formula again for (a1+a2+⋯+an)!, we get:
vp((a1+a2+⋯+an)!)=i=1∑∞⌊pia1+a2+⋯+an⌋
Therefore,
vp((a1+a2+⋯+an)!!)=i=1∑∞⌊pi(a1+a2+⋯+an)!⌋
4. Denominator Analysis:
- For the denominator a1!!a2!!⋯an!!, we have:
vp(a1!!a2!!⋯an!!)=vp(a1!!)+vp(a2!!)+⋯+vp(an!!)
Each vp(ai!!)=vp((ai!)!), and using Legendre's formula for ai!, we get:
vp(ai!)=j=1∑∞⌊pjai⌋
Therefore,
vp(ai!!)=j=1∑∞⌊pjai!⌋
Summing over all i,
vp(a1!!a2!!⋯an!!)=i=1∑nj=1∑∞⌊pjai!⌋
5. Comparison:
- We need to show that:
vp((a1+a2+⋯+an)!!)≥vp(a1!!a2!!⋯an!!)
- Since (a1+a2+⋯+an)!>a1!+a2!+⋯+an!, it follows that:
⌊pi(a1+a2+⋯+an)!⌋≥j=1∑n⌊piaj!⌋
for all i≥1.
6. Conclusion:
- Since the power of any prime p in the numerator is at least as large as the power of p in the denominator, the fraction is an integer.
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