Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 53 of 300 #1453 of 1964

Problem 1453

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Number theory Difficulty 7.1 Prove it

For any natural nn , define n!!=(n!)!n!!=(n!)! e.g. 3!!=(3!)!=6!=7203!!=(3!)!=6!=720.
Let a1,a2,...,ana_1,a_2,...,a_n be a positive integer Prove that (a1+a2++an)!!a1!!a2!!an!!\frac{(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n)!!}{a_1!!a_2!!\cdots a_n!!} is an integer.

(nooonuii)

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

To prove that
(a1+a2++an)!!a1!!a2!!an!! \frac{(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!!}{a_1!! a_2!! \cdots a_n!!}
is an integer, we will use properties of factorials and Legendre's formula for the valuation of factorials at a prime.

1. Definition and Setup:
- Define n!!=(n!)! n!! = (n!)! .
- We need to show that the given fraction is an integer.

2. Prime Factorization Insight:
- Consider a prime p p . We will use Legendre's formula to count the power of p p in the factorials involved.
- Legendre's formula states that for any integer m m ,
vp(m!)=i=1mpi v_p(m!) = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{m}{p^i} \right\rfloor
where vp(m!) v_p(m!) denotes the exponent of the prime p p in the prime factorization of m! m! .

3. Applying Legendre's Formula:
- For the numerator (a1+a2++an)!!(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!!, we have:
vp((a1+a2++an)!!)=vp(((a1+a2++an)!)!) v_p((a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!!) = v_p(((a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!)!)
Using Legendre's formula again for (a1+a2++an)!(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!, we get:
vp((a1+a2++an)!)=i=1a1+a2++anpi v_p((a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!) = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n}{p^i} \right\rfloor
Therefore,
vp((a1+a2++an)!!)=i=1(a1+a2++an)!pi v_p((a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!!) = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!}{p^i} \right\rfloor

4. Denominator Analysis:
- For the denominator a1!!a2!!an!!a_1!! a_2!! \cdots a_n!!, we have:
vp(a1!!a2!!an!!)=vp(a1!!)+vp(a2!!)++vp(an!!) v_p(a_1!! a_2!! \cdots a_n!!) = v_p(a_1!!) + v_p(a_2!!) + \cdots + v_p(a_n!!)
Each vp(ai!!)=vp((ai!)!) v_p(a_i!!) = v_p((a_i!)!) , and using Legendre's formula for ai!a_i!, we get:
vp(ai!)=j=1aipj v_p(a_i!) = \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{a_i}{p^j} \right\rfloor
Therefore,
vp(ai!!)=j=1ai!pj v_p(a_i!!) = \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{a_i!}{p^j} \right\rfloor
Summing over all ii,
vp(a1!!a2!!an!!)=i=1nj=1ai!pj v_p(a_1!! a_2!! \cdots a_n!!) = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=1}^{\infty} \left\lfloor \frac{a_i!}{p^j} \right\rfloor

5. Comparison:
- We need to show that:
vp((a1+a2++an)!!)vp(a1!!a2!!an!!) v_p((a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!!) \geq v_p(a_1!! a_2!! \cdots a_n!!)
- Since (a1+a2++an)!>a1!+a2!++an!(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)! > a_1! + a_2! + \cdots + a_n!, it follows that:
(a1+a2++an)!pij=1naj!pi \left\lfloor \frac{(a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n)!}{p^i} \right\rfloor \geq \sum_{j=1}^{n} \left\lfloor \frac{a_j!}{p^i} \right\rfloor
for all i1i \geq 1.

6. Conclusion:
- Since the power of any prime p p in the numerator is at least as large as the power of p p in the denominator, the fraction is an integer.

\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.