Proof: Assume xyz=1.
First, prove x2+xz+yzxz⩽1+y+z11.
(1) is equivalent to
x2+xz+yz⩾xz+1+x
which is x2+x1⩾1+x, or (x−1)2(x+1)⩾0. Hence (1) holds.
Also, since
1+y+z11=yz+z+1z
and similarly,
we have y2+xy+xzxy⩽1+z+x11=1+z+yz1z2+yz+xyyz⩽1+x+y11=xyz+x+xzxyz=1+z+yzyz
thus ∑cxx2+xz+yzxz⩽1+z+yz1+z+yz=1, the conclusion is established.