14. Let n>0 be an integer, prove: (i) n=∑d∣nφ(d). (ii) φ(n)=n∑d∣ndμ(d)
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Official solution
14. Let n=p1a1p2a2⋯pkak. (i) Proof: dipsαs∑φ(d)==φ(1)+φ(ps)+φ(ps2)+⋯+φ(psas)1+(ps−1)+(ps2−ps)+⋯+(psαs−psαs−1)=psαs
Therefore □ d∣n∑φ(d)=d1∣p1ar∑⋯dk∣pbak∑φ(d1⋯dk)=d1∣p1α1∑φ(d!)d2∣p2a2∑φ(d2)⋯dk∣pkak∑φ(dk)=p1a1p2a2⋯pkαk=n. (ii) Proof: In the previous problem, take f(d)=φ(d),F(n)=n, then the conclusion of the previous problem and part (i) of this problem together provide the proof.
Source: NuminaMath-1.5,
licensed Apache-2.0.
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