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Number theory Difficulty 7.9 National olympiad, round 2 Prove it Balkan Mathematical Olympiad

Let pp be a prime number and x1,x2,,xpx_1, x_2, \dots, x_p be integers. Show that if
x1n+x2n++xpn0(modp) x_1^n + x_2^n + \dots + x_p^n \equiv 0 \pmod{p}
for all positive integers nn then x1x2xp(modp)x_1 \equiv x_2 \equiv \dots \equiv x_p \pmod{p}.

Solution

Letting n=p1n = p - 1, we have xip10x_i^{p-1} \equiv 0 or 1(modp)1 \pmod{p}. Therefore, the congruence x1n+x2n++xpn0(modp)x_1^n + x_2^n + \dots + x_p^n \equiv 0 \pmod{p} is true when either all xix_i are divisible by pp or no xix_i is divisible by pp.

On the other hand, if no xix_i is divisible by pp we have
i=1p(xix1)n=j=0n(i=1pxij)(nj)(x1)nj0(modp). \sum_{i=1}^{p} (x_i - x_1)^n = \sum_{j=0}^{n} \left( \sum_{i=1}^{p} x_i^j \right) \binom{n}{j} (-x_1)^{n-j} \equiv 0 \pmod{p}.
Hence, 0,x2x1,x3x1,,xpx10, x_2 - x_1, x_3 - x_1, \dots, x_p - x_1 satisfy the condition, so, all xix_i are congruent modulo pp.

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