Maths Olympiad Prep

Track / Stage 7 / 61 of 300 #1461 of 1964

Problem 1461

National olympiad second round; IMO P1/P4
Number theory Difficulty 7.1 Prove it

The sequence of Fibonacci numbers F0,F1,F2,...F_0, F_1, F_2, . . . is defined by F0=F1=1F_0 = F_1 = 1 and Fn+2=Fn+Fn+1F_{n+2} = F_n+F_{n+1} for all n>0n > 0. For example, we have F2=F0+F1=2,F3=F1+F2=3,F4=F2+F3=5F_2 = F_0 + F_1 = 2, F_3 = F_1 + F_2 = 3, F_4 = F_2 + F_3 = 5, and F5=F3+F4=8F_5 = F_3 + F_4 = 8. The sequence a0,a1,a2,...a_0, a_1, a_2, ... is defined by an=1FnFn+2a_n =\frac{1}{F_nF_{n+2}} for all n0n \ge 0.
Prove that for all m0m \ge 0 we have: a0+a1+a2+...+am<1a_0 + a_1 + a_2 + ... + a_m < 1.

This one wants a proof. Work it on paper, then read the official solution and mark yourself. Be honest about it: the record is only any use to you if it is.

Official solution

1. We start by considering the sequence an=1FnFn+2a_n = \frac{1}{F_n F_{n+2}} for all n0n \ge 0. We need to prove that the sum of the first m+1m+1 terms of this sequence is less than 1 for all m0m \ge 0.

2. First, we use the identity for Fibonacci numbers:
Fn+2=Fn+Fn+1 F_{n+2} = F_n + F_{n+1}
This allows us to rewrite ana_n as follows:
an=1FnFn+2=1Fn(Fn+Fn+1) a_n = \frac{1}{F_n F_{n+2}} = \frac{1}{F_n (F_n + F_{n+1})}

3. We can further manipulate this expression:
1Fn(Fn+Fn+1)=1FnFn+2=Fn+2FnFn+1FnFn+2 \frac{1}{F_n (F_n + F_{n+1})} = \frac{1}{F_n F_{n+2}} = \frac{F_{n+2} - F_n}{F_{n+1} F_n F_{n+2}}
Simplifying, we get:
1FnFn+2=1Fn+1(1Fn1Fn+2) \frac{1}{F_n F_{n+2}} = \frac{1}{F_{n+1}} \left( \frac{1}{F_n} - \frac{1}{F_{n+2}} \right)

4. Now, we sum the terms from n=0n = 0 to n=mn = m:
i=0m1FiFi+2=i=0m1Fi+1(1Fi1Fi+2) \sum_{i=0}^m \frac{1}{F_i F_{i+2}} = \sum_{i=0}^m \frac{1}{F_{i+1}} \left( \frac{1}{F_i} - \frac{1}{F_{i+2}} \right)

5. Notice that this is a telescoping series. The terms inside the summation will cancel out in pairs:
i=0m1Fi+1(1Fi1Fi+2)=(1F0F11Fm+1Fm+2) \sum_{i=0}^m \frac{1}{F_{i+1}} \left( \frac{1}{F_i} - \frac{1}{F_{i+2}} \right) = \left( \frac{1}{F_0 F_1} - \frac{1}{F_{m+1} F_{m+2}} \right)

6. Given that F0=1F_0 = 1 and F1=1F_1 = 1, we have:
1F0F1=1 \frac{1}{F_0 F_1} = 1

7. Therefore, the sum becomes:
i=0m1FiFi+2=11Fm+1Fm+2 \sum_{i=0}^m \frac{1}{F_i F_{i+2}} = 1 - \frac{1}{F_{m+1} F_{m+2}}

8. Since Fm+1F_{m+1} and Fm+2F_{m+2} are both positive integers and grow exponentially, 1Fm+1Fm+2\frac{1}{F_{m+1} F_{m+2}} is a positive term that decreases as mm increases. Thus:
11Fm+1Fm+2<1 1 - \frac{1}{F_{m+1} F_{m+2}} < 1

9. Hence, we have shown that:
i=0mai<1 \sum_{i=0}^m a_i < 1
for all m0m \ge 0.

\blacksquare

Source: NuminaMath-1.5, licensed Apache-2.0. Statement and solution reproduced as published; topic, difficulty and ordering added by this site.